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Does this ruling basically forcing the estates to sell their leased fee interests to the homeowners seem fair and why?

Details of the court rulings and history of this phenomenon are presented in the following link as the history are fascinating and didn’t happen that long ago which we will discuss further.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/supremecourt/text/467/229 (Links to an external site.)

Questions:

1) How would you value a leased fee interest in someone’s lot under their home?

2) Does this ruling basically forcing the estates to sell their leased fee interests to the homeowners seem fair and why?

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