Quistclose trusts
‘Quistclose trusts are incapable of being reconciled with
orthodox trusts principle in a coherent way. The recognition of such trusts may have been thought to be commercially expedient for policy reasons, but they should now be abolished.’
To what extent do you agree?
Please answer all parts of the question, critical analysis is a must. The different trust principles it does or does not align with? Does it do so coherently? Was it actually commercially expedient? Should it be abolished?
